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egk (egk)
Intermediate Member
Username: egk
Post Number: 113
Registered: 11-2004
Posted From: 68.23.220.144
| | Posted on Saturday, April 23, 2005 - 4:38 pm: | 
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Hi,
This question is NOT to start a debate, it is just to satify my curiousity. For those of you who use the KJV (which I believe is the most beautiful in the English language), how do you take into account the differences in its language verses today's? I've run into a few persons who misread a verse because they misunderstood the archaic usage.
Please do not misunderstand me, I'm not saying that a 21st century American cannot understand the KJV. I'm just saying that misunderstanding it is more likely than with a modern translation.
Also another question. How many of you have seen the KJV "Apocrapha?" It contains those books which the Catholics accept, but most Protestant don't. (It also contains several books not accepted by Catholics.) It was published between the OT and NT in the KJV until the Puritans forced it to be removed.
I managed to find a used copy years ago. (The KJV translators prefaced it by saying they were not claiming these books were inspired.)
EGK |
solopilot (solopilot)
Advanced Member
Username: solopilot
Post Number: 501
Registered: 12-2004
Posted From: 216.190.204.57
| | Posted on Sunday, April 24, 2005 - 7:18 pm: |
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EGK:
I compare one part with others, rather than focussing on one jot or tittle.
A lot of Protestants don't use the KJV any longer, having changed to other versions.
I haven't read all of the Apocrypha, but parts of some. |
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